Elections Class 9 Social Science [LATEST] Solutions MCQs (Multiple Choice Questions) in english - CBSE Study
NCERT Solutions for Class 9 Social Science are carefully prepared according to the latest CBSE syllabus and NCERT textbooks to help students understand every concept clearly. These solutions cover all important Elections with detailed explanations and step-by-step answers for better exam preparation. Each MCQs (Multiple Choice Questions) is explained in simple language so that students can easily grasp the fundamentals and improve their academic performance. The study material is designed to support daily homework, revision practice, and final exam preparation for Class 9 students. With accurate answers, concept clarity, and structured content, these NCERT solutions help learners build confidence and score higher marks in their examinations. Whether you are revising a specific topic or preparing an entire chapter, this resource provides reliable and syllabus-based guidance for complete success in Social Science.
Class 9 English Medium Social Science All Chapters:
Elections
4. MCQs (Multiple Choice Questions)
Chapter 7. Elections
Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)
1. Why are elections essential to a democratic system?
(A) They allow citizens to choose their representatives
(B) They eliminate political parties
(C) They remove the need for government
(D) They give permanent power to representatives
2. An election is a process through which citizens exercise their:
(A) Right to property
(B) Right to vote
(C) Right to employment
(D) Right to education
3. Regular and periodic elections are at the core of:
(A) Monarchy
(B) Democracy
(C) Dictatorship
(D) Military rule
4. Which of the following is an important outcome of elections?
(A) Representation
(B) Accountability
(C) Legitimacy
(D) All of the above
5. In a direct election, citizens:
(A) Choose representatives directly
(B) Choose representatives who then elect all leaders
(C) Do not vote
(D) Only participate in campaigns
6. Which of the following is elected through a direct election in India?
(A) President
(B) Vice President
(C) Lok Sabha
(D) Rajya Sabha
7. Which of the following is elected through an indirect election?
(A) Lok Sabha
(B) Vidhan Sabha
(C) Panchayat
(D) President of India
8. Members of the Lok Sabha are elected by using which electoral system?
(A) Majority System
(B) First-Past-The-Post System
(C) Proportional Representation only
(D) Single Transferable Vote only
9. FPTP stands for:
(A) First-Poll-To-Parliament
(B) First-Past-The-Post
(C) Federal-Polling-To-Party
(D) First-Party-To-Poll
10. In the FPTP system, the candidate who receives the:
(A) Highest number of votes wins
(B) Lowest number of votes wins
(C) Exactly 50% of votes must win
(D) Highest number of party members wins
11. Under FPTP, a candidate can win even if the candidate receives:
(A) Less than 50% of the votes
(B) No votes
(C) Exactly 10 votes only
(D) More than 90% only
12. Which elections in India use proportional representation according to the chapter?
(A) Lok Sabha elections only
(B) Vidhan Sabha elections only
(C) Rajya Sabha, President and Vice President elections
(D) Panchayat elections only
13. Elections to the Vidhan Parishad are conducted using:
(A) FPTP only
(B) Proportional Representation by Single Transferable Vote
(C) Majority system only
(D) Direct election only
14. In a majority system, a candidate must receive:
(A) Exactly 25% votes
(B) More than 50% votes
(C) Less than 50% votes
(D) No votes
15. What happens in the majority system if no candidate gets more than 50% in the first round?
(A) The election is permanently cancelled
(B) The top two candidates may compete again
(C) The lowest candidate automatically wins
(D) Parliament chooses the winner
16. In proportional representation, seats are allotted:
(A) Randomly
(B) In proportion to votes received by parties
(C) Only to the largest party
(D) Only to independent candidates
17. In the Single Transferable Vote system, voters:
(A) Mark their preferences
(B) Vote only for one party without preferences
(C) Do not vote
(D) Select the Election Commission
18. In the Single Transferable Vote system, what happens to the votes of an eliminated candidate?
(A) They are destroyed
(B) They may be transferred according to the next preferences
(C) They are given to the government
(D) They are not counted
19. Which Act mainly deals with allocation of seats, delimitation and electoral rolls?
(A) Representation of the People Act, 1950
(B) Representation of the People Act, 1951
(C) Presidential Elections Act, 1960
(D) Anti-Defection Act, 1975
20. The Representation of the People Act, 1951 deals with:
(A) Nomination, campaigns, voting procedures and post-election disputes
(B) Only delimitation
(C) Only education
(D) Only local government
21. Which Act specifically deals with Presidential and Vice-Presidential elections?
(A) RPA 1950
(B) RPA 1951
(C) Presidential and Vice-Presidential Elections Act, 1952
(D) Constitution Amendment Act, 1985
22. Which of the following is an electoral offence mentioned in the chapter?
(A) Giving a gift to influence voting
(B) Reading a newspaper
(C) Registering as a voter
(D) Attending school
23. Appealing to people to vote on the basis of religion, caste, race, community or language is:
(A) Encouraged by election law
(B) A prohibited electoral practice
(C) Necessary for elections
(D) A normal voting procedure
24. What is delimitation?
(A) Fixing territorial boundaries of constituencies
(B) Counting votes
(C) Registering political parties
(D) Allocating election symbols
25. Why is delimitation important?
(A) To maintain a reasonable balance between population and representation
(B) To increase the number of political parties
(C) To stop elections
(D) To select ministers
26. Which Article of the Constitution provides for the establishment of the Delimitation Commission?
(A) Article 21
(B) Article 82
(C) Article 324
(D) Article 368
27. How many Delimitation Commissions are mentioned in the chapter?
(A) Two
(B) Three
(C) Four
(D) Five
28. The Delimitation Commissions mentioned in the chapter were established in:
(A) 1947, 1950, 1975 and 2000
(B) 1952, 1963, 1973 and 2002
(C) 1950, 1960, 1970 and 1980
(D) 1967, 1977, 1987 and 1997
29. The Election Commission of India is a:
(A) Private organisation
(B) Autonomous permanent constitutional body
(C) Political party
(D) Judicial court
30. The Election Commission of India was established on:
(A) 15 August 1947
(B) 26 January 1950
(C) 25 January 1950
(D) 26 November 1949
31. Which Articles of the Constitution provide for the Election Commission of India?
(A) Articles 14–18
(B) Articles 19–22
(C) Articles 324–329
(D) Articles 352–360
32. The ECI has the superintendence, direction and control of:
(A) The entire electoral process
(B) Only political parties
(C) Only Parliament
(D) Only local elections
33. Which of the following elections is conducted by the ECI?
(A) Lok Sabha
(B) Rajya Sabha
(C) President
(D) All of the above
34. Who supervises election work at the State level?
(A) Chief Electoral Officer
(B) Chief Minister only
(C) Speaker only
(D) District Judge only
35. Who prepares electoral rolls in India?
(A) Election Commission of India
(B) Parliament alone
(C) Political parties
(D) Supreme Court
36. Only those persons are normally allowed to vote whose names:
(A) Appear on the electoral roll
(B) Appear in newspapers
(C) Are recommended by political parties
(D) Are approved by candidates
37. SIR stands for:
(A) Special Intensive Revision
(B) State Election Registration
(C) Special Indian Representation
(D) Systematic Identity Review
38. The main objective of SIR is to:
(A) Update, verify and correct electoral rolls
(B) Form political parties
(C) Select ministers
(D) Count parliamentary seats
39. Which of the following may lead to removal of a name from an electoral roll during revision?
(A) Death of the voter
(B) Duplicate enrolment
(C) Change of residence
(D) All of the above
40. While deciding election schedules, the ECI may consider:
(A) Weather conditions
(B) Agricultural cycles
(C) Examination schedules and festivals
(D) All of the above
41. Which body registers and recognises political parties?
(A) Election Commission of India
(B) Supreme Court only
(C) Parliament Secretariat
(D) Ministry of Education
42. Who allocates election symbols to political parties and candidates?
(A) Election Commission of India
(B) Supreme Court
(C) Parliament
(D) State Legislature
43. The ECI can act as a quasi-judicial body in disputes concerning:
(A) Recognition of political parties and allotment of symbols
(B) School admissions
(C) University examinations
(D) Tax collection
44. National Voters' Day is celebrated on:
(A) 15 August
(B) 25 January
(C) 26 January
(D) 2 October
45. ETPBS stands for:
(A) Electronically Transmitted Postal Ballot System
(B) Electronic Transfer of Political Ballot System
(C) Election Technology and Postal Ballot Service
(D) Electoral Transmission and Polling Ballot Scheme
46. ETPBS is designed particularly for:
(A) Service voters
(B) School students
(C) Political party leaders only
(D) Foreign tourists
47. What does the Voter Helpline App provide?
(A) Voter registration and verification services
(B) Election-related information
(C) Other voter services
(D) All of the above
48. The cVIGIL App allows voters to:
(A) Report Model Code of Conduct violations and election misconduct
(B) Vote from another country
(C) Change the Constitution
(D) Register political parties
49. ERONET is associated with:
(A) Processing electoral forms and maintenance of e-rolls
(B) Political speeches
(C) Election rallies
(D) Court proceedings
50. Which app provides customised services for Persons with Disabilities?
(A) Sugam
(B) Suvidha
(C) Saksham
(D) cVIGIL
51. What is the purpose of the Suvidha application?
(A) Services for contesting candidates and political parties
(B) Voting by senior citizens only
(C) Maintaining court records
(D) Conducting school elections
52. What does the principle “No Voter to Be Left Behind” emphasise?
(A) Inclusive participation in elections
(B) Fewer voters
(C) Fewer polling stations
(D) Ending elections
53. During the 2024 General Elections, voting from home was extended across India for senior citizens above:
(A) 60 years
(B) 70 years
(C) 80 years
(D) 85 years
54. The chapter mentions EVMs with which special feature for accessibility?
(A) Braille
(B) Colour screen only
(C) Fingerprint scanner only
(D) Voice recorder only
55. India has which type of political party system?
(A) One-party system
(B) Two-party system
(C) Multi-party system
(D) No-party system
56. Political parties help voters to:
(A) Make informed decisions
(B) Avoid elections
(C) Stop public discussion
(D) Eliminate representation
57. Which of the following is a function of political parties?
(A) Organising public opinion
(B) Campaigning on specific issues
(C) Offering voters meaningful choices
(D) All of the above
58. What is defection?
(A) Switching from the political party under whose banner a candidate was elected
(B) Joining an election commission
(C) Voting for the first time
(D) Registering as a voter
59. The Anti-Defection Law was passed in:
(A) 1975
(B) 1985
(C) 1995
(D) 2005
60. The Anti-Defection Law was introduced through which Constitutional Amendment?
(A) 42nd Amendment
(B) 44th Amendment
(C) 52nd Amendment
(D) 73rd Amendment
61. Under the Anti-Defection Law, a member may face disqualification for:
(A) Voluntarily giving up party membership
(B) Voting against the party's instructions, subject to the law
(C) Both A and B
(D) Registering as a voter
62. Who decides what needs to be done in cases under the Anti-Defection Law?
(A) Speaker or Chairman of the House
(B) Election candidate
(C) Voter
(D) District Magistrate only
63. What is a National Party?
(A) A party recognised as a national party according to specified ECI criteria
(B) Any party contesting one election
(C) Any party formed in a village
(D) Any independent candidate
64. What is a State Party?
(A) A party recognised in a state according to specified criteria
(B) A party that never contests elections
(C) A party without members
(D) An independent candidate
65. RUPP stands for:
(A) Registered Unrecognised Political Parties
(B) Regional United Political Parties
(C) Registered Union Parliamentary Parties
(D) Recognised United Political Parties
66. According to the chapter, 1967 marked:
(A) The beginning of an era of alliances in various states
(B) The end of all elections
(C) The creation of the Election Commission
(D) The introduction of EVMs
67. Which party formed the first coalition government at the national level in 1977?
(A) Janata Party
(B) Congress Party
(C) BJP
(D) NDA
68. The Janata Government was formed against the backdrop of:
(A) National Emergency of 1975–1977
(B) First General Election
(C) Constitution-making
(D) Delimitation Commission
69. Which of the following is a challenge to free and fair elections?
(A) Misinformation
(B) Fake news
(C) Intimidation
(D) All of the above
70. Which of the following measures is mentioned in the chapter for addressing electoral challenges?
(A) EVMs
(B) VVPAT
(C) Model Code of Conduct
(D) All of the above
71. VVPAT stands for:
(A) Voter Verifiable Paper Audit Trail
(B) Voter Verified Political Account Test
(C) Voting Verification and Polling Audit Tool
(D) Verified Voter Public Access Technology
72. Why are voter-awareness campaigns important?
(A) They encourage informed and responsible participation
(B) They eliminate political parties
(C) They replace elections
(D) They stop voting
73. What can misinformation and fake news affect during elections?
(A) Public understanding and opinion
(B) Only weather
(C) Only transport
(D) Only school examinations
74. What is one important responsibility of citizens during elections?
(A) Vote responsibly
(B) Spread misinformation
(C) Intimidate voters
(D) Influence voters through prohibited inducements
75. According to the chapter, elections give every citizen:
(A) An equal voice in the formation of a government
(B) A government job
(C) A political party membership
(D) A guaranteed election victory
76. Which statement about elections is correct?
(A) Holding elections alone is sufficient for democracy
(B) Elections should be free, fair, transparent, inclusive and trustworthy
(C) Elections are required only at the national level
(D) Citizens have no role in elections
77. What does the ECI do after the polling process?
(A) Counts votes and declares election results
(B) Forms political parties
(C) Makes the Constitution
(D) Appoints all ministers
78. Which institution is responsible for ensuring the overall conduct of elections in India?
(A) Election Commission of India
(B) Political parties collectively
(C) Media organisations
(D) Local schools
79. Which of the following can make elections more representative?
(A) Active citizen participation
(B) Intimidation
(C) Fake news
(D) Electoral malpractice
80. What is the central idea of Chapter 7, “Elections”?
(A) Elections are unnecessary in democracy
(B) Elections enable citizens to choose representatives and hold them accountable, while laws and institutions help ensure a free and fair electoral process
(C) Only political parties are responsible for elections
(D) Only technology determines the success of elections
Answer Key
1. A 2. B 3. B 4. D 5. A 6. C 7. D 8. B 9. B 10. A
11. A 12. C 13. B 14. B 15. B 16. B 17. A 18. B 19. A 20. A
21. C 22. A 23. B 24. A 25. A 26. B 27. C 28. B 29. B 30. C
31. C 32. A 33. D 34. A 35. A 36. A 37. A 38. A 39. D 40. D
41. A 42. A 43. A 44. B 45. A 46. A 47. D 48. A 49. A 50. C
51. A 52. A 53. D 54. A 55. C 56. A 57. D 58. A 59. B 60. C
61. C 62. A 63. A 64. A 65. A 66. A 67. A 68. A 69. D 70. D
71. A 72. A 73. A 74. A 75. A 76. B 77. A 78. A 79. A 80. B